Talk:Hölder's inequality
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What about the generalized inequality of Hölder?
I have removed the following nonsense
[edit] Generalizations
Hölder's inequality can be generalized to lessen requirements on its two parameters. While p ≥ 1 and q ≥ 1, with 1/p + 1/q = 1, one has in terms of any two positive numbers, r > 0 and s > 0:
provided only that the integrability conditions can be generalized as well, namely that f is in Lr(S) and g is in Ls(S).
The latter inequality can be derived from Hölder's inequality applied to 
where 
. (Igny 19:59, 7 April 2006 (UTC))
I can understand that this generalization can be considered irrelevant, but I don't see why it is nonsense
- In particular, because you can not lessen requirements on the parameters by introducing different parameters.(Igny 20:33, 7 November 2006 (UTC))
- Ok. You mean it is not a generalization, but a consequence or corollary. Right?
- Yes, an unimportant corollary. (Igny 16:55, 30 November 2006 (UTC))
- Thanks for the clarification. My interest in this was only that I corrected the wrong 'proof' that was originally given for that fact on this page, so I wanted to know if I had made a mistake. At the time I did not feel comfortable totally removing something that was put by someone else. However I totally agree with you on the decision. (GBlanchard 10:44, 4 December 2006 (UTC))
- Yes, an unimportant corollary. (Igny 16:55, 30 November 2006 (UTC))
