Talk:Baranya (region)
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[edit] Name
"The name of the region come from the Hungarian word 'bárány', which means 'lamb'."
I do not doubt that Hungarian word 'bárány' means 'lamb', but the name of the Baranya region is clearly Slavic. Names of many towns and regions in present day Hungary were originally Slavic and they were changed by the Hungarian administrators to sound more acceptable in the Hungarian language and the new meaning was given to these names. For example, a original Slavic village 'Bačar' was by the Hungarian administration written as 'Vasvar' because word 'Vasvar' have meaning in Hungarian. The village of "Vraneš" was written as "Aranyos", "Hram" was written as "Horom", etc. Sometimes, names even were translated into Hungarian, such is the name of "Novo Selo" (New village), which was written in Hungarian as "Ujfalu". I just named a few examples, but examples are numerous such as Pest (one of two former parts of Budapest), which means "furnace" in Slavic, etc. PANONIAN (talk) 04:42, 28 January 2006 (UTC)
- Actually the two are not necessarily exclusive: the principle of 'popular etymology' can apply, by which a 'new' word (in this case the Hungarian name) is formed by corrupting an older word (in this case your prsumed Slavonic name) to a near-homonymous word. Anyhow, your -plausible- thesis does require aa early form and/or Slavic etymology to be conclusive. Fastifex 15:04, 28 January 2006 (UTC)
Well, despite the assumed original words (Slavic "bara" or Hungarian "bárány"), the current form of the name (Baranya/Baranja) is Slavic. There are other similar Slavic place names such as Županja, etc. Thus, Slavic form of the name also imply a Slavic origin. PANONIAN (talk) 16:30, 28 January 2006 (UTC)
Furthermore, name Baranya/Baranja in modern Serbian and Croatian still means "a swamp land", while the proper Hungarian word for "a land of the lambs" would be "Báránysag", not Baranya. PANONIAN (talk) 16:38, 28 January 2006 (UTC)
[edit] Baranya
...was originally a part of Vojvodina (Serbia). The Communist Party detatched it and annexed it to Croatia later in 1945 (that reminds us - the Crimea?) --PaxEquilibrium 20:35, 2 October 2006 (UTC)
- Well, that is not quite correct. During World War II, Baranja was under jurusdiction of the People's liberation movement of Vojvodina, but the borders between Vojvodina and Croatia were defined only in 1945 and by that decision it was assigned to Croatia. However, it is not correct to say that it belonged to Vojvodina before that because Vojvodina was not yet established as a province in that time (People's liberation movement is not same as provincial administration). PANONIAN (talk) 23:41, 3 October 2006 (UTC)
