Talk:Old Latin

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How come the old latin third declension is identical to the classical? - Christopher 19:45, 16 October 2006 (UTC)

Shouldn't the vocative singular of the 2nd declension be -e? Vegfarandi 19:40, 24 October 2006 (UTC)

Only in Classical Latin. Old Latin had -ō instead. Then this shortened to -ŏ which shifted to Classical -ĕ. Ciacchi 22:21, 24 November 2006 (UTC)

Should the ordering of the cases be the same as in the Latin declension article? Or is there some reason why it is different here 24.205.91.162 23:18, 1 January 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Orthography

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It looks like there was no interword separation in this era? Was there punctuation? Was the text direction always boustrophedon? -- Beland 18:57, 6 February 2007 (UTC)